2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: QAW1301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web)
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Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data
Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of the
tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true of grouping sets when using smart measures? (Choose two.)
A. It is a set of dimensions that generates a result for a measure.
B. It is a set of measures that generates a result for a dimension.
C. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that dimension that are
included in the report.
D. The generated SQL includes grouping sets for all the aggregations of that measure that are
included in the report.
Answer: A, D

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NO.3 Which DaysBetween() function syntax should you use to calculate the number of years since
your
birth, assuming the date object is Birth_date?
A. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate ) / 365.25
B. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] , CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
C. =DaysBetween([Birth_date] ; CurrentDate() ) / 365.25
D. =DaysBetween(CurrentDate() ; [Birth_date] ) / 365.25
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are using calculation contexts within an If() function. Which two are valid contexts for use
in
an If() function? (Choose two.)
A. In Cell
B. In Row
C. In Block
D. In Report
Answer: C, D

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NO.5 You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the
average of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers
and revenue and create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function
should you use in the variable?
A. NoFilter()
B. NoRank()
C. AverageAll()
D. IgnoreFilter()
Answer: A

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NO.1 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.2 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.3 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.4 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.5 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.6 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.7 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.8 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.9 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.10 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.11 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.12 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.14 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.15 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.16 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.17 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.18 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.19 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.20 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which of the following is a tool that can be used in the RSA DLP Suite to create new content des?
A. The Entity Manager
B. The Dictionary Manager
C. The Fingerprint Manager
D. The Described Content Manager
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two RSA DLP Network Appliances could detect employee posting company confidential
information to an online web forum? (Choose two)
A. DLP Network Sensor
B. DLP Network Controller
C. DLP Network Interceptor
D. DLP Network ICAPserver
E. DLP Suite Fingerprint Crawler
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0 Enterprise Manager
installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 In DLP 7.0 and later, DLP Network Policy may be configured to allow an end user to release one of their
own emails that were quarantined as a result of that DLP policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? ose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be purchased from RSA.
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan results and requiring a
full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually disabled or enabled without
affecting the other sections.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Users and Groups cannot be defined in the Enterprise Manager interface. y must be brought in from an
external Microsoft Active Directory server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 RSA DLP Datacenter 7.0 can scan Oracle and SQL Server databases for sensitive information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 RSA recommends that the RSA DLP Network Interceptor should not be the last MTA in the network
before email is sent on to the Internet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 The only way to monitor and or block HTTPS web traffic in a DLP Network implementation is to:
A. Use a third party Load Balancer.
B. DLP Network can never monitor HTTPS.
C. Use a third party email encryption server.
D. Use a third party proxy that supports HTTPS such as Bluecoat.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a new scan type available in RSA DLP Datacenter version 7.0?
A. Site scan
B. Resource scan
C. Repository scan
D. Coordinator Scan
Answer: C

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NO.1 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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NO.4 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.5 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.6 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.7 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.8 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.9 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.10 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.12 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.14 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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NO.16 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.17 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.18 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.20 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.22 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.23 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.24 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.25 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.27 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.28 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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NO.29 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.30 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.1 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

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NO.3 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

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NO.4 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

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NO.5 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which ports must be open when FileMaker Server 10 is on one machine to provide just database
services and full administration console functionality?
A. 5003,16000,16001
B. 5006, 16000,16001
C. 80, 5003,16000,16001
D. 80, 5006,16001,16004
E. 591, 5006,16001,16004
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about windows in a FileMaker database? (Choose two.)
A. A given user may have a maximum of 100 windows open concurrently.
B. Creation of a new window will activate an OnLayoutLoad script trigger.
C. On the Windows platform, only the currently active window can be maximized.
D. The Adjust Window script step can be used to move a window to a location specified by a calculation
formula.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a "PDF Form" document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF

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NO.7 A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Using FileMaker Server 10, which two groups of ports must be open to provide database services,
web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console? (Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true if two windows in a FileMaker Pro 10 database display records based
on the same layout? (Choose two.)
A. If a record is being edited in one window, it cannot be edited in the other window.
B. A find performed in one window will be available as a Recent Find in the other window.
C. If a new record is created in one window, it will become the active record in both windows.
D. If a custom menu set is installed in one window, it will become the active menu set in the other window
as well.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which three must be enabled when using FileMaker Server 10 and Web publishing on 64-bit editions
of the Windows operating system? (Choose three.)
A. ISAPI filters
B. ISAPI extensions
C. Deployment Assistant
D. Windows Addressing Mode to 32-bit only
E. Enable 32-bit mode in FileMaker Server Admin Console
F. Application pooling compatibility with 32-bit applications
Answer: ABF

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NO.15 According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which two statements are true in a FileMaker Pro 10 database containing scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple changes to multiple scripts can be saved using one operation.
B. Edits to a script can be undone by closing the script's Edit Script window without saving changes.
C. Running a script while other scripts have unsaved changes will cause all unsaved changes to be
reverted.
D. Closing the Manage Scripts window will prompt the user to save changes to the order or grouping of
scripts.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which statement is true when a script is installed on a window using the Install OnTimer Script step?
A. The script can not operate on hidden windows.
B. The window must be closed to uninstall the script.
C. The script will run on any new window created from the initial window.
D. In a window with more than one installed script, the scripts will be performed in the order in which they
were installed.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the maximum size of a calculation formula, including text and numbers, any referenced fields,
operators, functions, and parentheses?
A. 1,024 characters
B. 8,000 characters
C. 16,000 characters
D. 30,000 characters
E. 32,000 characters
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 10 Advanced?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
E. 999
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E

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NO.21 Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; " " ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; " " ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains "John Q. Adams", what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which three does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include?
(Choose three.)
A. a script triggers section
B. conditional formatting settings
C. object line, fill and effect settings
D. resizable layout object anchoring settings
E. the visibility status of fields in Table View
F. Text, Number, Date, and Time field formatting settings
Answer: BDE

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NO.23 Which two statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips will function in Find mode.
B. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object.
C. Tooltip text can only incorporate field data that is stored.
D. A tooltip defined by the formula = $tooltip can only display its message when a script is running (or
paused).
E. Tooltips can only be created or modified using FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced, though they will function in
a file opened by FileMaker Pro 10.
Answer: AB

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NO.24 Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD

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NO.25 What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which two techniques can be used to import a table and its record data from one FileMaker Pro file
to another using FileMaker Pro Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Import Records > File command and choose New Table as the Target.
B. Copy and paste a table occurrence from one relationship graph to the other.
C. Use the File Migration Tool from Solution Options in the Developer Utilities dialog.
D. Use the Import button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog to import the tables field
definitions, then use the Import Records > File command to import the record data.
E. Use the Copy button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the source database, then
use the Paste button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the target database.
Answer: AD

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NO.27 A script executed by a FileMaker Server schedule running on a Windows server exports a group of
records to a tab-delimited file. The resulting file needs to be saved to the FileMaker Server Documents
folder and the filename must contain a current timestamp appended to the word orders_ (e.g.
orders__02042009065656.tab).
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at:
C:\Users\Administrator\Documents.
B. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at: C:\Program
Files\FileMaker\FileMaker Server\Data\Documents.
C. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
D. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a calculation field with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
E. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( ServerDocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentServerTimeStamp );
"0123456789") & ".tab".
Answer: BC

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NO.28 A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script
A completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which two does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include? (Choose
two.)
A. user account Saved Finds criteria
B. ODBC driver information for external data sources
C. the file path lists for external FileMaker data sources
D. the IP addresses of the servers hosting external ODBC data sources
E. account names and passwords for the FileMaker file(s) being analyzed
F. user names and passwords assigned to DSNs used for external data sources
Answer: CF

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NO.30 Which five operating systems are supported for FileMaker Server 10 and FileMaker Server 10
Advanced? (Choose five.)
A. Mac OS X 10.5.4
B. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
C. Mac OS X Server 10.4.11
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows Vista Business SP1
F. Windows NT Server SP4
G. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition SP2
H. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition SP1
Answer: ACEGH

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Exam Code: I10-001
Exam Name: XML Master (XML Master Basic V2)
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes either the
"home" element or the "mobile" element as a child element of the "telephone_number" element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>
Answer: D

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NO.2 Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the -->(1) "product"
element in the "XML Document" below belongs.
[XML Documents]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<products xmlns:A="urn:sample:A"
xmlns:B="urn:sample:B">
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> -->(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. None
Answer: D

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NO.3 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Document". Select which of the following correctly describes the
results of applying "XSLT Stylesheet" to "XML Document". Assume that the input XML document and
transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
[XML Documents]
<product_list>
<LIST>Product_List</LIST>
<product name="pen">
<name lang="ja">Pen</name>
</product>
<product name="paper">
<name lang="ja">Paper</name>
</product>
</product_list>
[XSLT Stylesheet]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0">
<xsl:template match="/">
<LIST>
<xsl:for-each select="/product_list/product">
<xsl:value-of select="name"/>
</xsl:for-each>
</LIST>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST element does
not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the
computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the
"notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Which of the following is a valid XML
document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Output_file" type="outputType" />
<xs:complexType name="outputType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file" type="fileType" />
<xs:complexType name="fileType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file_Name" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file_Name" type="xs:string" />
</xs:schema>
A. < xml version="1.0"?>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
B. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
C. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
D. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
<file>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between "x", as expressed in the
DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements "a" "b" "c" are all
empty elements, expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>
<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>
Answer: ABC

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NO.7 Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the "date"
attribute and the "reception" attribute are included in the "Customer_Visit" element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
Answer: D

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NO.8 Select which of the following is the default character encoding for an XML document in which the XML
declaration does not designate an encoding attribute.
A. UNICODE
B. Shift_JIS
C. UTF-8 or UTF-16
D. EUC-JP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document below when
the content of the "Flag" element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Flag" type="flagData"/>
<xs:simpleType name="flagData">
<xs:restriction base="xs:integer">
<(1) value="0"/>
<(2) value="1"/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration
C. (1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusive
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the "price" element in the XML
document below belongs.
<message xmlns="urn:sample:order"
xmlns:product="urn:sample:product">
<product:list xmlns="urn:sample:list">
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>
<ElementA Attribute ="
A
B
C"/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an element that is
designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the attribute list
declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for setting
"notebook" as the default value in the CDATA "type" attribute included in the "computer" element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA "notebook">
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA "notebook">
D. <!ATTLIST computer type="notebook" CDATA>
Answer: C

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NO.13 Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the "XML Documents" structure below.
[XML Documents]
<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
Answer: D

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NO.14 Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in XML. As
a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to interpret XML documents,
which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the MarketPrice
element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is "xs".
A. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:negativeInteger"/>
B. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:positiveInteger"/>
C. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:duration"/>
D. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:hexBinary"/>
Answer: B

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NO.16 Choose the statement about HTML or XML that is incorrect.
A. In HTML, the types and meanings of tags are predefined.
B. In XML, a tag can be given any name as long as the name obeys XML naming conventions and is
well-formed.
C. In XML, elements can be given any number of attributes as long as the attributes obey XML naming
conventions and are well-formed.
D. XML protocols are linguistic standards used to control views on a Web browser.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Select which of the following correctly
describes a valid XML document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="ContactInformation" type="ContactType" />
<xs:complexType name="ContactType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name="Name" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
<xs:element name="eMail" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
</xs:sequence>
<xs:attribute name="Date" type="xs:date" use="optional" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
A. <ContactInformation Date="2004-07-31">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date="July 31, 2004">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when designating an
external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
Answer: B

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NO.19 Select which of the following is an absolute requirement for a well-formed XML document.
A. an XML declaration
B. a Schema definition
C. a DOCTYPE declaration
D. an element
Answer: D

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NO.20 Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOM
Answer: ABC

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