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Exam Code: 000-271
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1, Deployment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A deployment professional has just completed a custom installation and needs to examine the
installation details. What should the deployment professional use.?
A. Default application
B. First Steps Console
C. Installation Verification Tool
D. Integrated Solutions Console
Answer: C

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NO.2 A deployment professional has been tasked with performing a typical IBM Business Process Manager
Advanced installation with all of the latest fixes for a proof of concept. The installation is to be performed
on a 64-bit Linux system using the Oracle database. The environment used for the installation is on an
isolated network with no internet connectivity. What task should the deployment professional perform to
ensure a successful installation?
A. Pre-create the needed database.
B. Ensure the 32-bit version of the product is used.
C. Prepare multiple machines for the clustered environment.
D. Verify the Installation Manager search service repositories option during install and update is selected.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A deployment professional needs to install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1 on an
existing installation of WebSphere Application Server. How should the deployment professional do this?
A. Select typical installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
B. Select typical installation option and import WebSphere Application Server into Installation Manager,
then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
C. Select custom installation option and then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
D. Select custom installation option and install a new WebSphere Application Server version into
Installation Manager, then install IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5.1.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A deployment professional has to apply interim fixes to IBM Business Process Manager Advanced
V7.5.1. The server where the fixes must be applied does not have an internet connection. All the fixes
were downloaded to a local directory. What is the next step the deployment professional must do to apply
the fixes?
A. Modify the repository.config file to point to each fix.
B. Apply each fix detected in the directory using the "Install" wizard.
C. Copy the fixes to a maintenance directory and point to this directory.
D. Use the Installation Manager to add a repository for each fix to be applied.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A deployment professional has successfully completed an installation of IBM Business Process
Manager Advanced V7.5.1 and has verified that the Process Center has started and is ready for use by a
development team. Several developers now need to begin development of a process flow using the IBM
Process Designer tool, and have provided the deployment professional with access to their development
machines. How should the deployment professional proceed to begin installation of the IBM Process
Designer tool for the developers?
A. Use IBM Installation Manager to install the IBM Process Designer.
B. Download the IBM Process Designer from the IBM Support website.
C. Install IBM Integration Designer which includes the IBM Process Designer.
D. Connect to the Process Center in a browser, and click the IBM Process Designer Download option.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-781
Exam Name: IBM (PureFlex Technical Support V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Power Systems compute nodes communicate over the management network through which controller?
A. Flexible Service Processor (FSP)
B. Integrated Virtualization Management (IVM)
C. Integrated Management Module v1 (IMMv1)
D. Integrated Management Module v2 (IMMv2)
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is discussing PSU redundancy alternatives. Which is an advantage of N+1 over N+N for
PSU redundancy?
A. Better PSU redundancy
B. Possible lower amperage circuits
C. Greater number of compute nodes supported
D. Chassis can be setup as a dual power domain
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is moving their IBM i environment to PureFlex, and they want to know how they can attach
the V7000 disk. Which of the following is correct.?
A. IBM i only supports internal storage with PureFlex
B. Direct attached storage is an additional charge
C. IBM i attaches to storage through the VIO server
D. Direct attached storage is included in the system cost
Answer: C

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NO.4 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about rack capacity on their single rack configuration. Which of the
following is the maximum number of PureFlex chassis that fit in this configuration?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.5 Design criteria dictates the use of SAN pass-thru now and the ability to upgrade to full fabric capability
later. Which of the following is the most cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and enable full fabric functionality later
B. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and enable full fabric functionality later
C. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and switch to Brocade interoperability mode later
D. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and convert to full functionality through activation codes
later
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-246
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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NO.2 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting, and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following Smarter Commerce Offerings is a core part of delivering a customer
buy-online, pick-up in store (BOPIS) capability?
A. Social Analytics.
B. Distributed Order Management.
C. Logistics Management.
D. Customer Self Service.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In order to effectively implement ___________ you must be able to aggregate line items from individual
orders to send to suppliers and then separate them out again for customer fulfillment.
A. store operations
B. cross-channel order management
C. social marketing
D. supply chain visibility
Answer: D

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NO.7 What can AdTarget do?
A. Monitor all advertisements watched on cable television
B. Working withaffiliates, target Internet ads without email
C. Utilize You Tubeto more effectively deliver adcontent
D. Force customers to watch the entireInternetadbefore entering websites
Answer: B

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NO.8 What provides the capability to rapidly deliver new web concepts or delineated brand sites via asset
sharing on a common platform?
A. Personalization
B. Social integration
C. Partnership with affiliates
D. Extended sites
Answer: B

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NO.9 The web marketing continuous optimization platform can drive which of the following capabilities?
A. Optimize paid search advertising.
B. Automate customer recommendations based on LIVE profile.
C. Target through online advertisements based on interaction history.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are Smarter Commerce Buy
Offerings focused on?
A. Visibility and optimization in the supply chain.
B. Customer buying patterns.
C. Effective 1:1 marketing to facilitate customer purchase decisions.
D. Buy online, pick-up in the store (BOPIS).
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-089
Exam Name: IBM (System x Technical Fundamentals V11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A BladeCenter customer talks about UCS as a superior solution to their HS22 installation. Which of the
following is the competitor and a likely claim?
A. HP is going to stress easy cloud deployment
B. Dell is going to stress low purchase cost
C. Vblock is going to stress storage integration
D. Cisco is going to claim a completely unified system solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 An HP customer has is looking at IBM System x3850 eX5 servers, comparing them to the new HP
DL580. Which of the following is a typical differentiator favoring the x3850?
A. Maximimum memory
B. Processor speed
C. Intergrated quad port 1Gb Ethernet
D. More I/O slots available
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has fully populated all the storage drive bays on an installed server. The customer plans to
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requirements?
A. Replace current storage with solid state storage
B. Add external storage via SAN
C. Add external storage via EXP2512
D. Replace current storage with more dense drives
Answer: B

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NO.4 IBM ToolsCenter Bootable Media Creator is used to create bootable media. Which of the following
functions can be performed with this tool?
A. Update firmware, update drivers, install Windows, report energy usage
B. Update firmware, run diagnostics, install Windows, report energy usage
C. Update firmware, update drivers, run diagnostics, install Windows
D. Update firmware, update drivers, run diagnostics, install Windows and Linux
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer asks for financial justification for the System x solution.
Which resource can provide the customer requirements.?
A. Alinean
B. Techline
C. CDAT
D. SSCT
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-597
Exam Name: IBM (IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Query sections are preferred over multi-record smart sections except for what instance?
A. When the developer wants the records displayed in a vertical format.
B. When there are a lot of records so the query section performance suffers.
C. When the developer wants the user to be able to filter the data at runtime.
D. When the developer wants to sort the records by clicking on a column header.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When exporting an object migration package, what does the Wait option do?
A. Stops the creation of the package
B. Saves the package to a local drive
C. Pauses the creation of the package
D. Saves the package to the hosting server
Answer: B

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NO.3 Business objects are created using which tool?
A. Form Builder
B. Data Modeler
C. Data Integrator
D. Association Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?
A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.
B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.
C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order sequence.
D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order sequence.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where are the classifications
hierarchical parents to child associations created?
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the portal.
Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with navigation items,
what additional new element must be created to display this collection in the existing portal.?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has complained that an error message is showing up after they close and reopen the form.
It is discovered that a synchronous workflow controls the error message process.
What should be changed so that the error message displays while the form is open?
A. Change the synchronous workflow to use temporary data.
B. Change the synchronous workflow to use permanent data.
C. Change the synchronous workflow to trigger from a state action.
D. Change the synchronous workflow to an asynchronous workflow.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which task has the option of forcing a recalculation of formulas?
A. Trigger Formula
B. Modify Metadata
C. Retrieve Records
D. Associate Records
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
While troubleshooting associations on a World Region record of Europe, the Associations tab shows
these conditions while exploring the triCountry associations. What do the results indicate?
A. Europe has duplicate associations to France, Germany, Ireland, and Italy.
B. France, Germany, Ireland, and Italy will not show up properly in the Geography hierarchy.
C. Europe has the association Is Parent Of and the association Is Parent World Region to several
countries.
D. Europe has the association Is Parent Of and the reverse association Is Parent World Region to several
countries.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In the Data Modeler's Association List what does a red star next to the association indicate?
A. The association is used in a smart section.
B. The association is a dependent association.
C. The association is referenced by a locator field.
D. The association is referenced by a required field.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the process to hide a state transition action from view in a form?
A. Select Secondary Action in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
B. Deselect Default Display in the state transition properties in Form Builder
C. Select Secondary Action in the state transition properties in Form Builder.
D. Configure Includes/Excludes in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are the three types of fields that may be created on a form?
A. Smart Field, Data, Locator
B. Data, Locator, Form Action
C. Data, Form Action, Form Field
D. Locator. Form Action, Form Field
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true when defining an Include association?
A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.
B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.
C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child in an
editable state.
D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child in an
editable state.
Answer: B

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NO.14 When a transition occurs to move a record into a tri Active state, the expected behavior is that the form
is in a read-only state. This is not happening. What is the issue with the Read-Only property?
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The IF/THEN logic of the workflow is failing. Which task should be checked?
A. Iter Task
B. Fork Task
C. Switch Task
D. Create Record Task
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which workflow type gets executed by an association of two objects?
A. synchronous workflow using temporary data
B. synchronous workflow using permanent data
C. asynchronous workflow using temporary data
D. asynchronous workflow using permanent data
Answer: D

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NO.17 The designer is creating a query that will return several thousand records, so he is using the option
Prompt Before Query to give the user a chance to reduce the number of records to be returned by the
query. When the report is run it does not stop and returns all the records immediately. What is wrong with
this query?
A. There are no runtime filters.
B. There are no system filters.
C. The record's flag Enable Prompt Before Query has not been set in the business objects.
D. The records returned are below a preset threshold used by the platform to enable this function
Answer: A

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NO.18 Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the Organization hierarchy. What
should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization's root
node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to other
records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of to
other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and Primary
Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.19 An extended formula can be created for which two data types? (Choose two.)
A. Text
B. Date
C. Number
D. Boolean
E. Classification
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 A navigation collection is a hierarchical structure that contains what?
A. portal sections
B. navigation items
C. only menu items
D. only related navigation items
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-598
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Administration)
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Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which file is updated when the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server stops?
A.errpt.out
B.dsierror.out
C.dsmserv.err
D.dsmerror.out
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command is issued to set up one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server as the
source for configuration information for other servers?
A.set configmanager on
B.set server enterprise
C.define path configmanager
D.define server configmanager
Answer: A

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NO.3 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) storage agent has frequent connection problems
with the TSM client.Which file should be checked?
A.activity log
B.dsmerror.log
C.dsmsched.log
D.dsmstagent.log
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a client system is memory constrained which parameter can be set to improve
performance of
incremental backup?
A.Efficient backup No
B.Memoryefficientbackup No
C.Memoryefficientbackup yes
D.Efficientbackup diskcachemethod
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command allows a client node to utilize up to eight tape drives?
A.Register node C21 passwd domainsap_c21 maxmp6
B.Register node C21 passwd domain=sap_c21 maxnmp=S
C.Register node C21 passwd domain=sap_c21 maxnummp=8
D.Register node C21 passwd domainsap c21 inaxmount8
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about policy sets? (Choose two.)
A.A policy set must be activated before use.
B.Only one policy set is allowed in one policy domain.
C.A policy set can only contain one management class.
D.There are several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is default at a time.
E.There can be several policy sets within a policy domain, but only one is active at a time.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 What is the correct file extension for client auto-deploy packages?
A.tar
B.zip
C.exp
D.auto-deploy
Answer: C

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NO.8 On a Windows platform performing an auto deploy, where should a previously defined client
option file be placed before installing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 client?
A.\ProgramFiles\Tivoli\tsm
B.\ProgramFiles\Tivoli\tsm\hold
C.\Program Files\Tivoli\tsm\config
D.\Program Files\Tivoli\tsm\baclient
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the function of Cognos Business Intelligence V8?
A.It allows the creation of custom IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) reports.
B.It is a prerequisite checker for IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
C.It automates the installation and configuration of IBM Tivoli Monitoring for TSM.
D.It allows the creation of maintenance scripts to perform daily TSM server maintenance tasks.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about a journal-based backup? (Choose two.)
A.It is supported for HP clients.
B.It is available for supported Windows clients.
C.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Open Sources journal
service
process.
D.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Microsoft Windows journal
service process.
E.It is an alternate method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the IBM Tivoli
Storage
Manager V6.3 journal service process.
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.12 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) server has issued the error SQL 2026N.How can a
TSM administrator determine the meaning of this error?
A.From the IBM DB2 command line, run the command? sq12026n
B.From the IBM DB2 command line, run the command show sql202Gn
C.From the TSM Administrative command line, run the command q db2 202 GN
D.From the TSM Administrative command line, run the command help db2 20206N
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which concept applies to client-side data deduplication?
A.The client creates a journal file to track redundant files.
B.The client compares the server and client activity log files to determine if the data will be
deduplicated.
C.The IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 server creates a log file named dedup.log to track redundant
files.
D.The client creates extents which are parts of files that are compared with other file extents to
identify
duplicates.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which command copies active backup files from a primary pool to an active data pool?
A.COPY STGPOOL <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
B.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <copy_poolname>
C.COPY STGPOOL <priniary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
D.COPY ACTIVEDATA <primary_poolname> <active-data_poolname>
Answer: D

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NO.15 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which section in the Administration Center shows if the file system where the database is
installed has enough space, and that the last backup completed successfully?
A.Reporting
B.Health Monitor
C.Server Maintenance
D.Enterprise Management
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which parameters are used with the QUERY TOC command to display when a network
attached
storage file was generated?
A.FILEDATE and FILETIME
B.CREATIONDATE and CREATIONTIME
C.FILESPACEDATE and FILESPACETIME
D.GENERATIONDATE and GENERATIONTIME
Answer: B

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NO.19 Except for defining or deleting storage pools, which privilege class is granted to an
administrator who will manage IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 databases, storage devices, and
server storage?
A.Server privilege
B.Policy privilege
C.Storage privilege
D.System privilege
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two components need to be installed in order to use LAN-free with IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3? (Choose two.)
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for LAN-free on the client
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Storage Agent on the client
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive client on the client
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Administration Center on the server
E.IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks on the server
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 000-N26
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Management DB2 10 pureScale Technical Mastery Test v2)
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Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Consider the scenario of a DB2 pureScale environment with two DB2 members, and assume
there is an active connection to "member 3".Due to some maintenance emergency, "member 3"
needs to be stopped.Which one of the following commands will stop "member 3"?
A.db2stop force member 3
B.db2stop immediate member 3
C.db2stop node 3 all members
D.db2stop member 3
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a DB2 pureScale environment, which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of
the cluster caching facility?
A.This component is used to balance the workload through a global workload resource pool.
B.This component is used to coordinate locking through a global lock manager to prevent conflicting
access to the same table data by different members.
C.This component is used to keep page caching consistent across all members through a shared
group buffer pool.
D.This component provides a global buffer pool.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does DB2 pureScale handle member(s) failover scenarios?
A.All data remains locked until the failover operation is completed.
B.Future connections are evenly distributed among the surviving members of the cluster.
C.Current connections to the failed member will be on hold until the member recovers and is back
online.
D.DB2 pureScale requires database administrator intervention to handle failover scenarios.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the scenario that a technical expert accidentally trips over the power cord of a DB2
pureScale cluster node, bringing the node offline.Assume the cluster contains a SECONDARY cluster
caching facility and other DB2 members.What will be the outcome of this situation if the node was
hosting both the PRIMARY cluster caching facility and a DB2 member?
A.The secondary cluster caching facility will become the primary.All client transactions sent to be
processed by the offline server will be re-routed to the remaining members within the cluster.
B.DB2 pureScale cannot host both the cluster caching facility and a member on a single host.
C.The cluster will put all transactions on hold until the server is back online.
D.The secondary cluster caching facility will be in SYNC state.All client connections will be
terminated and will need to re-issued by the client.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following options describes correct cluster caching facility states when both
primary and secondary cluster caching facilities are in sync?
A.primary: PRIMARY secondary: SECONDARY
B.primary: SYNC secondary: SYNC
C.primary: PRIMARY secondary: PEER
D.primary: PEER secondary: CATCHUP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-647
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center-Water & Transportation Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 One of the key capabilities of IBM i2 Analyst Notebook is that:
A. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by importing data direct from unstructured
sources which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
B. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping data in the form of
entities, links and attributes onto the chart. Volume data can be easily imported from structured data
which can greatly reduce the time taken to import additional information into a chart.
C. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be quickly generated by dragging and dropping entropies, links, and
attrition rates onto the chart.
D. Intelligence Analysis Charts can be used to perform lookups of internet data and show this in graphical
format.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IBM i2 Analysts Notebook could be described as:
A. Analyst s Notebook is a web application designed to provide users with a powerful visualization and
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has a set of programmable JAVA based controls.
B. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
C. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the application via the
Analyst s Notebook SDK.
D. Analyst s Notebook is a standalone desktop product designed to provide users with a powerful
visualization and analytical tool. Analyst s Notebook has an API to enable programmatic control of the
application via the Analyst s Notebook SDK.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can the IBM i2 suite enable financial organizations reduce the time taken and effectively
manage risk when the required information comes form multiple data sources?
A. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure the database schema to match the schemas of the legacy data sets.
B. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
reconfigure internal systems so that legacy systems are redundant.
C. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to import, model, and
analyze data within a single application.
D. The IBM i2 Fraud Intelligence Analysis Platform enables financial organizations to automatically
connect to multiple data sets and import all of the data into a single repository via a stochastic web
application.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can the IBM i2 suite ensure that investments in existing systems can be preserved and
enhanced to give greater operational benefit to a wider range of users in different geographical locations?
A. Thanks to the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s ability to access multiple data sources across
varied geographies via the internet, investigations and analysis can be carried out using the data from
multiple sources
B. Because the IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform has web search capabilities it can access all multiple
data sources across multiple geographies at much lower cost.
C. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s capability to access all legacy data sources from one
location retaining full integrity of their searches for investigations and analysis without the need to replace
existing databases combined with its nodal technology enable the expansion of capability across multiple
geographies.
D. The IBM i2 Intelligence Analysis Platform s nodal capability enables it to operate across multiple
geographies but only if all the data is bought into one database.
Answer: C

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A. IBM i2 IntelliShare will auto-connect intra-organization data silos through enterprise access to enriched
data manipulation services.
B. IBM i2 IntelliShare will remove the drawbacks caused by the presence of intra-organization data silos
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Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-923
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following tools is not used by an IBM WebSphere Portal administrator for staging
data to a production environment?
A. Managed Pages
B. Syndication
C. Release Builder
D. XMLAccess
Answer: A

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NO.2 If errors occur during the execution of ConfigEngine tasks, which of the following log files
contain the trace information for diagnosing the configuration issues?
A. ConfigTrace.log
B. ConfigEngine.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. SystemErr.log
Answer: A

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NO.3 When setting up security for a stand-alone IBM WebSphere Portal profile that will become
part of a cluster, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Security should be set up on the stand-alone node prior to joining the deployment manager cell.
B. Security should be set up on the deployment manager cell after the node is added.
C. It makes no difference whether security is set up before or after the WebSphere Portal node joins
the
deployment manager cell.
D. The IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, not WebSphere Portal security tasks, should
be
used to configure security.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What parameters need to be modified in the Installation Manager response file to change
the default port numbers during a silent installation?
A. -W portBlockInput.startingPortToScan=port number -W portBlockInput.endingPortToScan=port
number
-W portBlockInput.portBlockSize=blocksize
B. <data key='user.wp.admin.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80'
value='<port>'/>and<data
key='user.wp.portal.port,com.ibm.websphere.PORTAL.SERVER.v80' value='<port>'/>
C. <port.admin='<port>'/>and<port.wps='<port>'/>
D. IBM WebSphere Portal always scans for active ports at 10000 and ends at 65000 during
installation.
This behavior cannot be affected usingcommand parameters.
Answer: B

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NO.5 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one
should take when setting up an IBM WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1.Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2.Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4.Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node foreach
portal
node in the cluster.
2.Federate each of these nodes into theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell
using
the addNode command.
3.Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4.Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1.Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the ConfigEngine
tasks
to create a profile template.
2.Prepare the first node to communicateWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, and
use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks toconfigure the cluster and user registry.
3.Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4.Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the
cluster
setup.
D. 1.UseWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each
portal node in the cluster.
2.Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3.Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4.Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements correctly describes how IBM WebSphere Portal's
functionality is implemented on the IBM WebSphere Application Server?
A. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone, Java application using WebSphere Application
Server
client libraries.
B. WebSphere Portal is deployed as an enterprise application on the WebSphere Application Server.
C. WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere
Application
Server.
D. WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's portlet container.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Bob needs to integrate IBM WebSphere Portal to handle tasks from several different backend
systems as a service. Bob can create tasks and specialized workflows using which of the following?
A. Unified Task Portlet
B. IBM Rational Application Developer Edition and Standard Portlet API
C. Unified Task Developer Edition and Collaborative Services API
D. Page Builder and Portlet Wires
Answer: A

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NO.8 Don isdesigning a highly-available, secure, high-traffic, public website for his company. If he
wants to use IBM WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone, WebSphere Portal server with disaster recovery.
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load-balancing solution, a WebSphere Portal
server
cluster with HTTP servers handling staticcontent, clustered LDAP servers and database servers.
C. A WebSphere Portal server cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached, storage
devices.
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a WebSphere Portal
server cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. He is using a 32-bit version of IBM
WebSphere Portal server and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory.
What type of cluster configuration should he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members.
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance.
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types.
D. A multi-production cluster because it meets both high-availability and high-performance criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Bob is building a site that is displayed using either IBM Web Content Manager or a web server.
It is not using any IBM WebSphere Portal features such as portlets. The content is static and is only
updated periodically.
What delivery mechanism is best suited for this scenario?
A. Servlet delivery
B. Pre-rendered delivery
C. Local, web-content, viewer delivery
D. Remote, web-content, viewer delivery
Answer: B

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NO.11 IBM has confirmed that a single IBM WebSphere Portal installation can support __________
Virtual Portals.
A. 65
B. 115
C. 300
D. 215
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.12 George is gathering requirements for an IBM WebSphere Portal implementation. Among the
requirements is that the portal remembers the names of the most recently logged in users from a
particular browser, so that they are not required to log in each time they visit the site. How would
George
best implement this requirement?
A. George has to create a custom login portlet that reads and writes from a cookie that he has to
define.
B. George has to develop a trust association interceptor that bypasses the portal login.
C. George has to implement a third-party authentication mechanism.
D. George can use the built-in Remember Me functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following direct migration paths to IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 are supported.?
A. WebSphere Portal 5.1.0.x and 6.1.0.x.
B. WebSphere Portal 6.0.0.x and 7.0.0.x.
C. WebSphere Portal 6.1.5.x and 7.0.0.x.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which option best describes the workflows that can be achieved using the IBM WebSphere
Portal Configuration Wizard?
A. Enabling security.
B. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, and connecting to an existing database.
C. Enabling security, and transferring the portal database.
D. Enabling security, transferring the portal database, connecting to an existing database, and
enabling
IBM Lotus Domino integration(collaborative features, directory integration, and so on).
Answer: B

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NO.15 The business units of Mary's company have needs for their own portals. However, the
demand on server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, Mary's
company selected virtual portals.
Which of the following options are available across each of the virtual portals by default?
A. Portal search
B. Document management
C. Portal property file definitions
D. Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Answer: D

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