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Exam Code: HP0-081
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.3 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.4 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.5 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.6 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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NO.7 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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NO.10 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.12 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.13 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.14 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.15 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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NO.16 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.17 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.18 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.19 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.20 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y12
Exam Name: HP (Building ProCurve Resilient, Adaptive Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.4 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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NO.5 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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NO.6 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.7 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.8 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.12 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.13 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.15 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.16 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.18 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-A02
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)
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Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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NO.9 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.10 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.11 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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NO.18 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-085
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.2 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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NO.3 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.4 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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NO.6 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.7 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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NO.8 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.10 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.11 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.12 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.13 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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NO.14 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.15 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.16 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.17 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.18 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.20 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

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Exam Code: HP0-790
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
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Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.2 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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NO.3 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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NO.4 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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NO.5 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-D01
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx8640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which information is crucial when preparing a site for new HP servers and storage?
A. BTU factor, power consumption, airflow
B. BTU factor, airflow, operating system properties
C. BTU factor, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance
D. airflow, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance, operating system properties
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx7640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A

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NO.4 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of several hundred c-Class
enclosures? (Select two.)
A. electrical workload
B. shipments to the facility
C. helpdesk response time
D. amount of heat generated
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: AD

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NO.5 A customer is interested in implementing the proactive performance capturing and optimization
reporting functionality within the HP Insight Control Environment (ICE) suite. Which operating systems are
supported? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. Windows
E. OpenVMS
Answer: AD

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NO.6 During a site survey, you must identify the scalability of an existing rx6600 server. What is the
maximum number of processor modules supported for the HP Integrity rx6600 Server?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are evaluating whether a customer's infrastructure can benefit from consolidating on an HP
BladeSystem c-Class with Insight Control Environment management. Which customer requirements
would indicate this? (Select three.)
A. high-volume deployment
B. power and cooling limitations
C. single server point management
D. support for dynamic RAID memory protection
E. quick redeployment through rip-and-replace technology
Answer: ABE

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NO.8 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running on an HP OpenVMS cluster. They are using medical applications on those systems.
Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the management of the current infrastructure?
A. Insight Power Management
B. Rapid Deployment Solution
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a business continuity solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.10 You must verify that the existing data center power and cooling can support 15 units of fully populated,
c7000 enclosures. Which resource provides information about heat-generated air flow and power
requirements for the enclosures?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. BladeSystem Sizer
C. StorageWorks Sizer
D. SalesBUILDER for Windows
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which resource can be used to plan and configure HP servers and HP storage in a data center?
A. StorageWorks Sizer
B. SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP 9000 and HP Integrity Ordering Guide
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. current system power utilization
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current user workload and transactions per second
D. current system user list and installed software patches
Answer: BC

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NO.13 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of 35 units of rx8640
server complexes? (Select three.)
A. electrical workload
B. helpdesk response time
C. amount of heat generated
D. equipment loading in the facility
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 You must verify the supported connectivity between a server platform and an HP StorageWorks EVA
storage array. You must also determine if additional software or tools are needed to implement the
solution. Which resource provides this information?
A. HP Enterprise Configurator
B. HP SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP StorageWorks Administrator Guide
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which tool contains detailed technical information about retired HP products?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. HP Product Bulletin
C. HP Product Information Tool
D. HP Performance Quick Reference Tool
Answer: B

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NO.16 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. number of available I/O slots
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current system user list and installed software patches
D. plans to migrate this system to another operating system
Answer: BD

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NO.17 A customer is using an HP 9000 rp7420 Server and would like to increase system performance.
Which option is most cost effective?
A. in-box upgrade
B. scale-in upgrade
C. scale-up upgrade
D. box swap upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running HP-UX 11i v3 and HP Serviceguard. They are using an Oracle 10g and SAP solution on
those systems. Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the current infrastructure?
A. Virtual Server Environment
B. Insight Power Management
C. Rapid Deployment Solution
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which information do you need from the customer to use the HP StorageWorks Sizing Tool to size a
data protection solution?
A. total storage capacity, number of servers, and file system type
B. total storage usage, data read:write ratio, and file cache hit rate
C. server workload ratio, transactions per second (tps), and file system type
D. total backup time, percentage of data change, and storage network (SAN) performance
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a high-availability solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J14
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U
of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A. HP StorageWorks MSA60
B. HP StorageWorks MSA70
C. HP StorageWorks MSA500
D. HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A. real mode
B. user mode
C. kernel mode
D. secured mode
Answer: C

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NO.4 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

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NO.9 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HP (HP Performance Center User Site)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What type of valid input data is already resident in the Application Under Tests (AUT) database?
A.master data
B.external data
C.user generated data
D.Performance Center data
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the minimum length of a Timeslot?
A.one hour
B.30 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.15 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.3 The database server receives information from four components. What are these components? (Select
four.)
A.User site
B.File server
C.Utility server
D.Administration site
E.Controller machine
F.Load generator machine
Answer: ACDE

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NO.4 What does Vuser initialization refer to? (Select two.)
A.access the User site
B.prepare the Controller monitors
C.prepare the Vusers for a load test
D.gather available Timeslot information
E.prepare the Load Generator machines for a load test run
Answer: CE

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NO.5 Where do you configure the post-run analysis settings?
A.in the Change Project page
B.in the Options tab of the Timeslots page
C.in the General tab on the Project Status page
D.in the Timeslot Details tab of the Timeslots page
Answer: B

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NO.6 From where can your teams view analysis data for your load tests?
A.from the user site
B.from the controller machine
C.from the Local Area Network
D.from the load generator machine
Answer: A

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NO.7 When you upload a VuGen script into Performance Center, which file extension change needs to be
made?
A..USZ to .ZIP
B..ZIP to .NET
C..DOC to .ZIP
D..HTML to .DOC
Answer: A

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NO.8 In Performance Center architecture, which component allows you to manage resources and supervise
technical information?
A.Utility server
B.Database server
C.Administration site
D.Controller machine
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the Timeout tab set the timeout interval for? (Select two.)
A.commands
B.Vuser quotas
C.Vuser scripts
D.Vuser elapsed time
E.number of monitors
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What is Performance Centers primary tool for developing Vuser scripts?
A.VuGen
B.Quality Center
C.Quick Test Professional
D.performance engineers
Answer: A

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