2013年11月30日星期六

The latest HP certification HP0-S20 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP0-S20
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which features does the HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license include? (Select two.)
A. global team collaboration
B. server migration pack
C. enhanced networking
D. headless server deployment
E. integration with LDAP services
Answer: AE

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NO.2 What is required to enable online spare memory?
A. All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same capacity.
B. Four-way interleaving must be enabled in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same capacity or larger than those in the other banks.
D. The spare memory bank must be counted and added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which virtualization technologies are supported in c-Class server blades? (Select three.)
A. Microsoft Virtual Machines
B. VMware Workstation
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. VMware ESX
E. Virtual Partitioning
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 What are advantages of using point-to-point storage technology with Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)?
(Select two.)
A. higher fault tolerance of the disks
B. better isolation of hard drive failures
C. increased bandwidth
D. backwards compatibility with parallel SCSI cables
Answer: BC

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NO.5 What is a new feature of ProLiant G6-series server blades?
A. internal SD card slot
B. internal USB port
C. PCI Express 1.0 ports
D. small form factor SAS drives
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have collected and evaluated data from a series of reports and subsystems of an HP c-Class
enclosure and server blades. You are now ready to develop an action plan that addresses the
outstanding
issues you identified.
In accordance with the HP Troubleshooting Methodology, which tasks should you perform in order to
develop an optimized action plan for your customer? (Select two.)
A. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
B. Isolate faults to a hardware or software system.
C. Identify possible solutions for each possible root cause.
D. Identify the cause of the failure and implement preventive measures.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which features are new to the ProLiant G6 Intel-based server blade line? (Select two.)
A. NUMA (Non Uniform Memory Access) Architecture
B. internal SD card slot
C. SAS 1.0 Smart Array Controller
D. registered DDR2 DIMM support
Answer: AB

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NO.8 What can be configured to allow an additional server to take over operations from a failed server?
A. SmartLink
B. high-availability clustering
C. cloud computing
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the HP StorageWorks All-in-One SB600c Storage System provide? (Select three.)
A. data protection
B. support for SCSI disk subsystems
C. shared storage for application servers
D. synchronous data replication
E. enhanced file serving for end-user clients
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. white
B. black
C. blue
D. brown
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers Rev 8.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the
Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C

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NO.2 .For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage
arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B

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NO.4 .After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer.
Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the
documented fix or fixes were. What else should you provide as part of the HP
Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy of SmartStart
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 .What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D

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NO.6 .What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire
drivers and ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX
3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A

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NO.8 .You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed. Which
offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D

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NO.9 .The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed through iLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-T11
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the difference between single-ended SCSI and differential SCSI?
A. Single-ended uses twisted pair wires
B. Differential is more susceptible to noise
C. Differential uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
D. Single-ended uses a single signal wire and has length limitations
Answer: D

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NO.2 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.3 Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) technology uses the same electrical and physical interface as which
technology?
A. IDE
B. ATA
C. iSCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements apply to AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three )
A. Each processor can access only its own memory
B. Requests for memory access are handled by the Northbndge ASIC
C. Each processor can access the full complement of installed memory
D. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors
E. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors
F. Requests for memory access are handled directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport lnk
Answer: ADF

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NO.5 A customer has an existing mission critical database application using approximately 20TB of network
storage and plans to add a web server component to the existing environment to increase the storage by
50% Which tape storage technology would you recommend?
A. Autoloader
B. Travan Tape System
C. business-class library
D. enterprise-class library
Answer: C

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NO.6 What happens if you install a 66MHz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot? (Select two)
A. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 32-bit mode
C. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode
D. Any 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards
Answer: AB

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NO.7 Which system architecture is displayed?
A. Dual Peer I/O Bus (DPIO)
B. Triple Peer I/O Bus (TPIO)
C. Highly Parallel System Architecture (HPSA)
D. Memory and I/O Controller Architecture (MIOC)
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is an advantage of using iSCSI?
A. it enables the use of SCSI cables for Ethernet communications
B. it enables the use of SAS and SATA drives using standard SCSI controllers
C. It overcomes the inability to use shared storage devices in a heterogeneous environment
D. It overcomes the distance limitations associated with standard Fibre Channel storage transport
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of nodes supported in a Fibre Channel Switched Fabric (FC-SW)
environment?
A. 125
B. 126
C. 15 million
D. 16 million
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a characteristic of Double Data Rate (DDR) RAM?
A. sends data every other clock cycle
B. sends data on the rising edge of the clock cycle only
C. sends data on the falling edge of the clock cycle only
D. sends data on both the rising and falling edge of each clock cycle
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer asks you for information about the advantages of RAID 6 over other RAID levels What can
you recommend? (Select three)
A. Performance is equivalent to RAID 5 when reading data.
B. It is the most cost-effective of the fault-tolerant RAID solutions.
C. lt has greater faulttolerancethan RAID4, RAID 1+0, or RAID5.
D. It uses the most storage capacity for fault tolerance of all the RAID levels.
E. it is ideal for applications requiring large logical drives with many physical drives.
Answer: ACE

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NO.12 In systems with AMD processors, what allows communication between processors and the I/O
subsystem?
A. APIC
B. Northbridge
C. Southbridge
D. HyperTransport lnk
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which statement is correct when comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron
processors'?
A. Xeon processors are optimized for parallel execution
B. Opteron processors are optimized for parallel execution
C. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed
D. Xeon processors use an integrated memory controller that operates at core processor speed
Answer: B

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NO.14 How does the operation of RAID memory differ from RAID 5 disk storage? (Select three)
A. Data is written sequentially to all banks of memory
B. Data is written simultaneously to all banks of memory
C. Existing parity information must be read before calculating the new parity value
D. There is no need to read the existing parity before calculating a new parity value
E. The memory controller writes parity information to a dedicated parity bank of DIMMs
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 Which RAID implementation allows for simultaneous failure of multiple drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.16 The system administrator typically performs a full backup every Monday and incremental backups on
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, and Thursdays In addition, full backups are performed at the end of the week
and at the end of the month
Which GFSterm refers to the monthly full backup?
A. son
B. sister
C. father
D. grandfather
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statement best describes PCI Express architecture?
A. Data is sent in parallel
B. Data is sent serially over each link
C. PCI Express has more pins than PCI-X
D. PCI Express transfers data in half-duplex
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is a characteristic of a PCI-X-based bus?
A. You cannot use PCI-X cards in a conventional PCI system
B. It is fully backward compatible with conventional PCI devices
C. You cannot use existing PCI devices in a PCI-X-based system
D. It is compatible with conventional PCI devices only after updating to newer drivers
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which backup type would you recommend if a customer environment requires saving the latest
version of each file?
A. full
B. copy
C. differential
D. incremental
Answer: D

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NO.20 What best describes PCI-X architecture?
A. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
B. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 66MHz
C. 64-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
D. 32-bit bus that runs at speeds of up to 133MHz
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S26
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How does the standard warranty on a ProLiant DL165 Server differ from that of a ProLiant DL320
Server?
A. There is no difference in warranty terms between the DL165 and DL320.
B. No onsite support for DL165; 3 years onsite support for the DL320
C. 3 years parts and labor for the DL165; 1 year parts and labor for the DL320
D. 1 year parts and labor for the DL165; 3 years parts and onsite labor for the DL320
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which changes to clustering are included in Windows Server 2008? (Select two.)
A. Clusters are x64-based and now support up to 32 nodes.
B. Cluster nodes can have their IP addresses assigned by DHCP.
C. Geographically dispersed clusters cannot span subnets.
D. Failover clusters are built around a more resilient and customizable quorum model.
E. GUID partition table (GPT) disks are not supported.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A customer wants you to create a third LUN on a connected MSA2000. After you do this, what must you
do to make it visible to the host within the Windows operating system? (Select two.)
A. Enable BIOS on the first and (if available) second fc-adapter.
B. Present the LUN with the WWN number of the FC card installed in the server.
C. Boot the connected server from SmartStart 8.x, use Array Configuration Utility, and allow the host to
access the new LUN.
D. Restart your server or select Disk Management, right-click, and select Rescan Disk.
E. Add the new LUN-WWN to zoning of the fc-fabric.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What does an HP SIM CMS running on Windows use to record various error, warning, and informational
events that occur during runtime?
A. Windows Event Log
B. HP SIM Select Options ? Events
C. System Management Homepage
D. CPQSetup.log
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about SAN/Fabric Switch Care Pack service level support?
A. It need not be uplifted to match existing storage or server service level.
B. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by separate Care
Packs.
C. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by the Care Pack.
D. It does not cover the Ethernet interconnect and virtual connect modules.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are adding a second Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Small Form Factor (SFF) drive cage to a ProLiant
ML350 G6 Server. The server has a Smart Array 410i Controller. The customer has ordered the cage,
cables and drives. Why are you unable to complete this task?
A. The second drive cage installation requires a SAS expander board.
B. The second drive cage installation requires all eight inch SAS cables.
C. The SA410i does not support this configuration.
D. The SA410i must have a 512MB with BBWC option installed.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which agent is used for HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP) on Windows Server 2008?
A. DAClient
B. AClient
C. DAgent
D. ADLAgent
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which services do you need installed to use the HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)
Deployment Server Web Console? (Select two.)
A. ASP.NET.
B. WAIK 2.1
C. Framework.net 2.0
D. Framework.net 1.1
E. IIS
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which utility is used to create an output file containing information about the disk controller order on a
reference server that can be used for replication?
A. ORCA
B. CONREP
C. ADU
D. CPQDISK
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which tool is best suited to replicate the RBSU settings across multiple ProLiant DL300 Series servers?
A. HP SIM
B. RDU
C. ACU
D. CONREP
Answer: D

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NO.1 What do you need in order to provide your customer with an HP printing solution? (Select two.)
A. knowledge of the HP portfolio
B. an understanding of your customer's needs
C. the ability to identify competitive situations
D. knowledge of how to deliver complex technology
E. an understanding of your customer's corporate structure
Answer: B, E

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NO.2 Where is the best place to find information about HP solutions?
A. HP Easy Fix
B. HP Partner Portal
C. HP Instant Reference Guide
D. HP Global Solutions Catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the results of using HP MFP to consolidate the functionality of several devices? (Select two.)
A. increased space
B. increased toner life
C. increased functionality
D. increased paper savings
E. increased storage capacity
Answer: A, E

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NO.4 What helps you to successfully sell and implement a solution.?
A. Experience
B. revenue sharing
C. supplies knowledge
D. transactional selling knowledge
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where can you apply the knowledge learned while implementing solutions for a customer who is part of
a vertical market?
A. in all vertical markets
B. in your own business
C. with other similar customers
D. with enterprise customers
Answer: D

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NO.1 Performing a SWOT analysis will help you understand the customer perspective and positively
affect the outcome of the HP solution. Which attributes are examined during a SWOT analysis?
A. services, workforce, outcomes, and tools
B. standards, workloads, operations, and technology
C. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
D. servers, workstations, operating systems, and terminals
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which focus area represents an old business paradigm?
A. business outcome focus
B. focus on innovation
C. focus on shared IT assets across the enterprise
D. operational focus
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a revenue-generating initiative that a company might undertake?
A. supply chain consolidation
B. new product launch
C. IT staff outsourcing
D. virtualization study
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement best describes stock market regulations, environmental requirements, and
country policies?
A. They are major contributors to an economic recession.
B. They are business drivers that affect the current marketplace.
C. They are internal factors that customers can monitor and control.
D. They are primary considerations among systems administrators.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Stage Four of the HP Sales Cycle is the "Develop and propose the solution" stage. What is a key
goal of this stage?
A. define final terms and conditions
B. confirm customer's budget and commitment
C. address customer requirements and show immediate ROI
D. assess the opportunity in terms of workload and performance
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HPTouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. WindowsVista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is inhibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.11 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Identify two BIOS security features introduced with the HP BIOS based on Unified Extensible Firmware
Interface (UEFI). (Select two.)
A. system recovery
B. BIOS user accounts
C. boot device options
D. SpareKey
E. DriveLock
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.16 An HP product carries a 3-3-3 warranty. What does this mean?
A. The product carries a 3 year parts, 3 year labor warranty, with no onsite service.
B. The product carries a nine year warranty on all parts, labor, and updates.
C. The product carries a 3 year parts, labor, and onsite service warranty.
D. The product carries an advanced replacement warranty.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convertDisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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NO.20 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 Which type of cable connection is used to link two HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures for
management purposes?
A. USB
B. Rj-11
C. RJ-45
D. RS-232 serial
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which action can you initiate from the Insight Display?
A. Determine the IP address of the Virtual Connect Manager
B. Change the IP address of the server OS.
C. Power down a blade server
D. Upgrade Onboard Administrator firmware.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 1?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Understand the mode of failure.
C. identify the steps necessary to implement each solution,
D. Gather failure information.
Answer: D

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Place the possible mezzanine card type next to its corresponding mezzanine connector in a
BL685c G5 Server Blade.
Answer:

NO.5 What is the maximum number of drives supported in an SB40c Storage Blade?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
Click on the SD card slot in a BL460c G6.
Answer:

NO.7 How can storage be presented to a server from the StorageWorks All-ln-One SB600c Storage
Blade? (Select two.)
A. using iSCSI
B. using HTTPS
C. using InfiniBand
D. using NFS
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Where does the System Management Homepage obtain its data?
A. Web-enabled agents
B. BIOS
C. http://www.hp.com
D. Product Bulletin
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is used to set the initial enclosure IP addressing on a c7000 enclosure?
(Select two.)
A. Insight Display
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Systems Insight Manager
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which management functionality is performed by the c7000 Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. providing dynamic resource allocation for server blades
B. managing shared power and cooling for the enclosure
C. activating Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
D. providing license management through the command line interface (CLI)
E. detecting any mismatches between mezzanine cards and interconnects
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 What can be set with the Insight Display of the c7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A. power mode
B. role base user account and privileges
C. power and cooling management mode and monitoring
D. enclosure and rack name
E. power savings
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.12 Which HP cooling technology allows automatic control of the CPU state to reduce power
consumption when application demand is low?
A. active Cool fan-
B. Modular Cooling system
C. HP Power Regulator for ProLiant
D. Static Power Saver
Answer: C

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NO.13 How many BladeSystem p-Class enclosures are supported by a single Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.14 How high in standard units (Us) is a c3000 enclosure?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which blades support the Intel 5500 Chipset processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL460cG6
B. HP ProLiant BL490cG6
C. HP ProLiant BL680cG5
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG6
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Your customer has a c7000 enclosure with four full-height blades, four power supplies, and six
fans installed. What must be done when adding a BL685c G6?
A. add another power supply
B. add two more fans
C. change the power mode
D. disable power capping
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer wants to install a new blade into an existing c7000 solution. What should be checked
before installation to verify compatibility?
A. processor speed
B. port mapping
C. jLO settings
D. disk mapping
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your customer wants to mount a standard media image located on a shared network location from
the company's blade server Which iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition feature allows this?
A. key-activated floppy and CD virtual media
B. virtual power button
C. virtual media
D. remote console
Answer: C

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Place each severity level listed in the Integrated Management Log next to its description.
Answer:

NO.20 HP offers two types of mezzanine cards. Which statement is correct?
A. Type I mezzanine cards will fit into type I and type II slots.
B. Type II mezzanine cards can fit into typeI or type II slots.
C. Type I mezzanine cards outperform type II slots.
D. Type II mezzanine cards will only support older SCSI devices.
Answer: A

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NO.21 What will mixing RDIMMs and UDIMMs in an HP server blade do?
A. halt the server blade during BIOS initialization
B. have no effect; the server blade is booting up normally
C. have no effect as long as the types are not mixed within pairs
D. cause a boot loop
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which Smart Array features are offered in a P410i when using a Cache option, but not offered in a
P410i model without cache? (Select two.)
A. Offline Mirror Splitting
B. Online Drive Flash
C. Drive Erase
D. Disk Write Cache
E. Volume Extension
Answer: A,E

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NO.23 You have activated the UID (Unique Identifier) light on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure in
a remote data center. Which color is the UID?
A. green
B. amber
C. black
D. blue
E. red
Answer: D

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NO.24 Where are the iLO 2 user accounts stored when not using a directory integration?
A. LDAP server
B. iLO 2 memory
C. SMH database
D. iLO 2 certificate
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. white
B. black
C. blue
D. brown
Answer: A

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NO.26 A full-height server blade has a quad port network mezzanine card Installed in slot 3. Where do
you need to install the GbE2c Switches to make use 1 of all four ports?
A. Bays 3 and 4 only
B. Bays 7 and 8 only
C. Bays 5, 6, 7 and 8
D. Bays 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which server blades support the Intel Xeon processor? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant BL465cG5
B. HP ProLiant BL480cG5
C. P ProLiant BL490cG6
D. HP ProLiant BL685cG5
Answer: B,C

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NO.28 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP2-Z06
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve AIS 2010 Delta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which HP ProCurve switch model display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
ProCurve Switch(eth-Cl) #
A. 2910al
B. 3500yl
C. 4200vl
D. 3400cl
E. 2610
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch. At this prompt you can
choose to update switch software and erase the startup configuration. What other option is available at
this prompt?
A. disable ports
B. assign IP address to VLAN interface
C. restart the switch
D. enable IP routing
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory default settings will move
you from Operator privilege to the Manger privilege level?
A. ProCurve Switch> manager
B. ProCurve Switch> super user
C. ProCurve Switch> enable
D. ProCurve Switch> elevate
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the advantages of deploying 802.11n wireless technology instead of 802.11a
technology? (Select two)
A. 5Ghz operating frequency
B. support for centralized WLAN architecture
C. backward compatibility with 802.11b
D. higher transmission rates
E. more powerful encryption options
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 You must define a hostname of PCU5406zl-01 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which CLI prompt
and command will perform this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5406zl (config) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
B. ProCurve Switch 5406zl # hostname PCU5406zl-01
C. ProCurve switch 5406zl (vlan-1) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
D. ProCurve switch 5406zl > hostname PCU5406zl-01
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch? (Select
three.)
3500yl-24G>
A. ping6
B. reload
C. write
D. show
E. enable
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which privilege level and CLI context will
enable you to perform this task?
A. administrator privilege level and router context
B. operator privilege level and IP address context
C. super user privilege level and CLIpassthrough context
D. manager privilege level and VLAN context
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which HP ProCurve switch models display the following prompt in the Interface configuration context?
(Select three.)
ProCurve Swicch(eth-1)#
A. 2910al
B. 4200vl
C. 5400zl
D. 6200yl
E. 2610
F. 8200zl
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: HP3-024
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet 4700 series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 For what reason should you disassemble and then replace the paper feed assembly?
A. if repeated paper jams occur due to excessive paper skew
B. if replacing feed rollers and adjusting paper skew sensors do not solve repeated jam errors
C. if the mediasensor value no longer matches the value on the label located on the paper feed
assembly
D. the paper feed assembly can be replaced as a full unit but should never be disassembled
Answer: D

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NO.2 When installing drum drive motors from service parts________.
A. the motors are optimized for any color and can be used with any color
B. each color (C, M, Y, K) has its own drum drive motor part number, optimized for that color
C. all motors must be replaced as a set
D. the fusible link burns up and resets the drum driver counters
Answer: A

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NO.3 Before performing an engine test on the HP Color LaserJet 4700ph+,________.
A. the printing device must be powered off
B. the printing device must be power-cycled
C. the output device connection cable must be detached from the printing device
D. the output device and output accessory bridge must be removed
Answer: B

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NO.4 Automatic calibration occurs for which events? Select THREE.
A. whenever the device comes out of power save mode
B. when the printer is powered on after having been powered down for longer than 20 seconds
C. whenever a brand new print cartridge is installed in the printer
D. when 1,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 The HP Color LaserJet 4700 automatically calibrates and cleans at certain times to maintain
optimum print quality. Which of the following conditions cause the device to perform a color-plane
registration (CPR)? Select THREE.
A. one or more print cartridges are installed that have not previously been installed in the printing device
B. 10,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
C. 'Full Calibrate Now' is requested through the control panel
D. the ETB is replaced
Answer: A,C,D

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